How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

  • @[email protected]
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    fedilink
    372 months ago

    This proves that an infinite, non-repeating number needn’t contain any given finite numeric sequence, but it doesn’t prove that an infinite, non-repeating number can’t. This is not to say that Pi does contain all finite numeric sequences, just that this statement isn’t sufficient to prove it can’t.

    • @SwordInStone
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      132 months ago

      you are absolutely right.

      it just proves that even if Pi contains all finite sequences it’s not “since it oa infinite and non-repeating”