• @adj16
      link
      English
      111 year ago

      😆 nice one

  • ryan213
    link
    English
    61
    edit-2
    1 year ago

    I don’t understand the formula, but I understand Mr. Bean. +1

    • Limitless_screaming
      link
      fedilink
      281 year ago

      If you have two charges q1 and q2, you can get the force between them F by multiplying them with the coulomb constant K (approximately 9 × 10^9) and then dividing that by the distance between them squared r^2.

      q1 and q2 cannot be negative. Sometimes you’ll not be given a charge, and instead the problem will tell you that you have a proton or electron, both of them have the same charge (1.6 × 10^-19 C), but electrons have a negative charge.

      • pewter
        link
        191 year ago

        q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1

        • Limitless_screaming
          link
          fedilink
          41 year ago

          In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.

          • Pelicanen
            link
            fedilink
            51 year ago

            If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.

        • @[email protected]
          link
          fedilink
          0
          edit-2
          1 year ago

          But that if both are negative not one pos one neg like the previous commenter gave in their examples, so the true formula has an absolute value in the numerator: |q1Xq2|

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      11
      edit-2
      1 year ago

      G is a constant,

      m is mass,

      d is distance from each other starting from their center of mass,

      This measures gravitational force, F

  • jimmydoreisalefty
    link
    fedilink
    English
    39
    edit-2
    1 year ago

    edit: fix similarities typo

    Awesome to see the similarities between: Newtonian Mechanics and Quantum mechanics

    Coulomb’s law was essential to the development of the theory of electromagnetism and maybe even its starting point, as it allowed meaningful discussions of the amount of electric charge in a particle.

    Here, ke is a constant, q1 and q2 are the quantit>ies of each charge, and the scalar r is the distance between the charges.

    Being an inverse-square law, the law is similar to Isaac Newton’s inverse-square law of universal gravitation, but gravitational forces always make things attract, while electrostatic forces make charges attract or repel. Also, gravitational forces are much weaker than electrostatic forces. Coulomb’s law can be used to derive Gauss’s law, and vice versa. In the case of a single point charge at rest, the two laws are equivalent, expressing the same physical law in different ways. The law has been tested extensively, and observations have upheld the law on the scale from 10−16 m to 108 m.

        • @[email protected]
          link
          fedilink
          201 year ago

          They’re different things. The OP means electromagnetism, Coulomb’s law has nothing to do with quantum mechanics, it’s classical physics.

          • @[email protected]
            link
            fedilink
            English
            -51 year ago

            Okay but tell me, what theory superceded electromagnetism?

            Sure, EM is still useful, I use it in my work, but in the end, it all boils down to QM.

            • @[email protected]
              link
              fedilink
              121 year ago

              “X depends on or is built up on Y” does not imply “X is Y”. Concepts, laws, techniques, etc. can depend or be higher-order expressions of QM without being QM. If you started asking a QM scientist about tensile strength or the Mohs scale they would (rightly) be confused.

              • @[email protected]
                link
                fedilink
                English
                -11 year ago

                Yes, of course. Coloumb and Maxwell had no idea about QM when they were developing their ideas. Not to mention that these higher-order abstractions are just as valid as QM (up to a point, but so is QM). Depening on the application, you’d want to use a different abstraction. EM is perfect for everyday use, as well as all the way down to the microscale.

                My point is that EM is explained by QM, and therefore supercedes it. You could use QM to solve every EM problem, it’d just be waaaaay too difficult to be practical.

                • @[email protected]
                  link
                  fedilink
                  61 year ago

                  I feel like you’re using “supercede” differently to the rest of us. You’re getting a hostile reaction because it sounded like you’re saying that EM is no longer at all useful because it has been obsoleted (superceded) by QM. Now you’re (correctly) saying that EM is still useful within its domain, but continuing to say that QM supercedes it. To me, at least, that’s a contradiction. QM extends EM, but does not supercede it. If EM were supercedes, there would be no situation in which it was useful.

                • @SuckMyWang
                  link
                  3
                  edit-2
                  1 year ago

                  Guys guys, yesterday I ate some hot wings and then shit myself on the way to the toilet 🤣💪💯

                  Also can you really solve all em equations with qm? I always thought the laws broke down from one to the other? So you’re saying going from em to qm the laws break down but going from qm to em the laws hold up?

            • @[email protected]
              link
              fedilink
              6
              edit-2
              1 year ago

              Quantum mechanics didn’t supersede electromagnetism. Again, they’re different things. Electromagnetism is a fundamental interaction. Whereas quantum mechanics describes the mechanics of quantum particles. Whether those particles are affected by electromagnetic forces or not. It’s a description of how they behave at quantum scales.

              Coulomb’s law has nothing to do with quantum mechanics, it’s a description of how macroscopic charged particles interact. What the OP should have said to be correct is:

              Awesome to see the similarities between: Newton’s law of gravitation and Coulomb’s law

              I don’t know where he got quantum mechanics from.

  • @[email protected]
    link
    fedilink
    English
    271 year ago

    Coulomb had the last laugh though because Newton’s theory has been superseded by relativity.

  • @[email protected]
    link
    fedilink
    131 year ago

    If there’s anyone who can, please let me know if the similarities between these two formulas imply a relationship between gravity and electrical attraction or hint at a unified theory, or if it’s just a coincidence or a consequence of something else.

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      29
      edit-2
      1 year ago

      The relation between them is that they’re both forces that scale with the inverse square of the distance between the objects. Any force that scales with the inverse square of distance has pretty much the same general form.

      Another similarity is that both are incomplete, first approximations that describe their respective forces. The more complete versions are Maxwell’s laws for electromagnetism and General Relativity for gravity.

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      181 year ago

      There’s some relation in that they both act on fields, but the things that affect those fields are very different (higgs bosons and electrons respectively) and the relationship between all that for an ‘unified theory’ is a topic of much research. IANAP though (not a physicist)

      • Tlaloc_Temporal
        link
        fedilink
        31 year ago

        Are higgs bosons supposed to be gravitons? I think you’re confused about how some particles aquire some of their mass, and how all mass behaves.

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      91 year ago

      Electromagnetism and gravity are both mediated by massless bosons; photons and gravitons respectively. This is why both forces follow the inverse square law.

      • Tlaloc_Temporal
        link
        fedilink
        81 year ago

        I don’t think there’s any evidence for gravitons yet, and gravity hasn’t been quantized. I’d say it’s this similarity that’s the best argument of quantum gravity, not the other way around.

        • @[email protected]
          link
          fedilink
          31 year ago

          Fair. The masslessness of the bosons that should mediate gravity, along with them being spin-2, can however be deduced from the properties of gravitational waves.

          • @[email protected]
            link
            fedilink
            3
            edit-2
            1 year ago

            We know that gravity is a wave that travels at the speed of light, this has been experimentally measured many times. If it is also quantized (a very reasonable symptom hypothesis since everything else that we’ve ever seen is) then by definition there are particles that carry gravity.

            If gravity is continuous then we would end up with something like the ultraviolet catastrophe but for gravity.

            • Tlaloc_Temporal
              link
              fedilink
              11 year ago

              Hmm, I hadn’t considered an “ultragravity catastrophe”. I wonder if this could accout for dark energy or the supposed inflatons? Probably not, the catastrophe suggests infinite energy, not just lots of energy, eh?

              The ultraviolet catastrophe was averted due to the discreet nature of electrons though, and I don’t recall gravity behaving as a blackbody radiator anyway. Would this come into effect at horizons?

              • @[email protected]
                link
                fedilink
                English
                3
                edit-2
                1 year ago

                Sorry, I think I came off as too confident in my previous comment. I’m quite sure about my first paragraph but the rest is just speculation from an amateur.

                If I would risk speculating even further though, there’s some similarity in the sense that infinities indicate a problem. In the ultraviolet catastrophe the infinity arises from the energy of arbitrarily short EM wavelengths. With gravity it arises in the density of black holes. It seems unreasonable that it would actually be infinite, and it’s possible that quantization of gravity plays a part in preventing that from happening.

    • @Gabu
      link
      81 year ago

      The most accepted theory among physicists is that “shit’s crazy, yo”.

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      71 year ago

      There is one thing particularly interesting, and that is that the inverse square laws appears again. It appears in the electrical laws for instance.

      That is electricity also exerts forces inverse to the square of distance with charges. One thinks perhaps inverse square distance has some deep significance, maybe gravity and electricity are different aspects of the same thing

      Today our theory of physics, laws of physics are a multitude of different parts and pieces that don’t fit together very well. We don’t understand the one in terms of the other. We don’t have one structure that it’s all deduced we have several pieces that don’t quite fit yet.

      And that’s the reason in these lectures instead of telling you what the law of physics is I talk about the things that’s common in the various laws because we don’t understand the connection between them.

      But what’s very strange is that there is certain things that’s the same in both

      Richard Feynman and 45:48 https://youtu.be/-kFOXP026eE?si=hAIvDhWVGxMOvEi1

    • @[email protected]
      link
      fedilink
      41 year ago

      Doubtful but interesting thinking. It’s actually a rather simple equation that explains how two equally weighted forces affect one another over distance. The numerator expresses that both forces carry equal weight in the interaction (if they are both the same kind of force, eg gravity or electromagnetism, this makes sense) and they are constructive interactions (both add to the intensity of the interaction) hence multiplying one by the other. The denominator just indicates that the distance between the two things exponentially degrades the force at a power of 2, since the force is spreading out in 2 dimensions (imagine a cone starting at one point and extending to the second, so that when you reach the second point the force is spread across the cross section of that cone, but the only part of the force affecting that second point is the part that touches it).

    • @Pher
      link
      41 year ago

      It’s really simple, they are both radial fields with a 1/r potential, thus a 1/r² force. Newtonian gravity is just a weak field approximation of general relativity, where you have very different equations, for example Einsteins field equations… One electric charge creates an electric field, and another charge will interact with it, but the motion itself still depends on the mass of the second charge. Matter instead curves spacetime itself, and the curved spacetime tells matter how to move. Source: MS in physics.

  • @NocturnalMorning
    link
    111 year ago

    Now that’s just not fair, Coulomb was born way after Newton. At least make Newton a zombie for realism.