There’s a neat phenomenon in middle ages Europe where peasants often had more nutritious diets than royals. The explanation I’ve seen is that the peasants ate a varied diet, while the royals only ate the things they wanted. So the royals would often have bad teeth from sugar and a lack of chewing.
How is this different from today?
Simultaneously, the slaves were well fed and the royals weren’t. It really sounds like too many deserts
I got a feeling this one is loaded and I don’t want to touch it.
I’m confused. I didn’t mean anything by it. Have you not heard about the pyramid slaves being well fed?
I mean if they did manual labour they would have to be well fed as any slave doing manual labour. I fee like this statement is sus tho
There’s a neat phenomenon in middle ages Europe where peasants often had more nutritious diets than royals. The explanation I’ve seen is that the peasants ate a varied diet, while the royals only ate the things they wanted. So the royals would often have bad teeth from sugar and a lack of chewing.
that’s a rickroll, boys
Whoosh
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