Would you like to elaborate how the Soviet mass executions and deportations in Poland were not eradication campaigns, but that the deportation of the Crimean Tatars and the Holodomor were eradication campaigns? Walk me through your criteria here. Is targeting a specific ethnicity for mass executions and deportation in the name of eradicating the nation not eradication in some way that I’m unaware of?
Walk me through how executing 5% of the Polish nation in your newly conquered territories and deporting another 25% inside of two years isn’t genocide. Walk me through how targeting Poles specifically in the newly conquered territories, rather than other ethnicities living in what-was-previously-Poland, isn’t an eradication campaign.
Because the ethnic cleansing of Poles as a cleansing mostly happened in Ukraine and Belarus? You know where they shipped most Ukrainian and Belarusian Poles to?
Poland!
There’s obviously a lot to say about THAT in a Glorious Communist Utopia but it’s pretty hard to argue Stalin was ethnically cleansing Poland of Poles when he was also shipping more ethnic Poles into Poland.
Now if you want to argue that Belarus was Polish territory before the Tsars conquered it there’s at least a point there.
Because the ethnic cleansing of Poles as a cleansing mostly happened in Ukraine and Belarus?
Are you taking the piss right now.
A million Poles are deported from Poland itself, some 150,000+ are outright executed, and you’re saying that the Soviets were performing these atrocities on a larger scale in Ukraine and Belarus, when there weren’t even a million Poles in the whole of the USSR.
We’re talking about a genocide that happened 1938-1941
Don’t forget the part where America and Britain agreed.
Yes, I remember when America and Britain said “Wow, you go Stalin, I love that you’ve expelled and exterminated over a quarter of the Polish nation in the land that was once Poland, a sovereign state that one of us was outright allied with!” in 1941.
Would you like to elaborate how the Soviet mass executions and deportations in Poland were not eradication campaigns, but that the deportation of the Crimean Tatars and the Holodomor were eradication campaigns? Walk me through your criteria here. Is targeting a specific ethnicity for mass executions and deportation in the name of eradicating the nation not eradication in some way that I’m unaware of?
Walk me through how executing 5% of the Polish nation in your newly conquered territories and deporting another 25% inside of two years isn’t genocide. Walk me through how targeting Poles specifically in the newly conquered territories, rather than other ethnicities living in what-was-previously-Poland, isn’t an eradication campaign.
Please. Enlighten me.
Because the ethnic cleansing of Poles as a cleansing mostly happened in Ukraine and Belarus? You know where they shipped most Ukrainian and Belarusian Poles to?
Poland!
There’s obviously a lot to say about THAT in a Glorious Communist Utopia but it’s pretty hard to argue Stalin was ethnically cleansing Poland of Poles when he was also shipping more ethnic Poles into Poland.
Now if you want to argue that Belarus was Polish territory before the Tsars conquered it there’s at least a point there.
Are you taking the piss right now.
A million Poles are deported from Poland itself, some 150,000+ are outright executed, and you’re saying that the Soviets were performing these atrocities on a larger scale in Ukraine and Belarus, when there weren’t even a million Poles in the whole of the USSR.
Are you fucking stupid.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Population_exchange_between_Poland_and_Soviet_Ukraine
From your own source
Couldn’t do it in 1941, now could they?
Don’t forget the part where America and Britain agreed.
…
We’re talking about a genocide that happened 1938-1941
Yes, I remember when America and Britain said “Wow, you go Stalin, I love that you’ve expelled and exterminated over a quarter of the Polish nation in the land that was once Poland, a sovereign state that one of us was outright allied with!” in 1941.