• @PugJesusOPM
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    61 day ago

    Is an action taken with the intention of exploitation that unintentionally ends up being beneficial ultimately a good action?

    Good in what sense? ‘Good’ as in ‘virtuous’ would be debatable, but ‘good’ as in ‘a positive benefit’ is pretty inarguable, and furthermore disputing would suggest that very little has happened that is beneficial in human history outside of the individual level. Except, perhaps ironically, some of the most minor alleviations of suffering.

    Roman rule (let’s not get into conquest for now) was ‘good’ insofar as it had serious, tangible, and accessible benefits to the vast majority of the population compared to what came before and after.

    Or, in the words of the Emperor Tiberius, “A good shepherd shears his sheep; he does not slaughter them.”

    • @[email protected]
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      1 day ago

      Hmm, personally I dont think you can so casually brush off the conquest part. How many people would you accept being murdered, raped, and enlaved in order to justify this positive benifit? Is there a specific number? If the supposed benifit was greater, would you accept more people being killed? How big does a benefit to future generations need to be to justify killing and enslaving the current population?

      • @PugJesusOPM
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        11 day ago

        Hmm, personally I dont think you can so casually brush off the conquest part.

        It’s not ‘brushing off’, it’s a different question/discussion entirely.

        How many people would you accept being murdered, raped, and enlaved in order to justify this positive benifit?

        Would ‘equal or less than the amount caused by native warfare in the same period’ be an acceptable response?

        • @[email protected]
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          24 hours ago

          It might be, but if you take that stance then I’d ask you to take the argument to its logical end point. Was American manifest destinty acceptable because it technically put a stop to tribal warfare? Was the British colonization of India ok because it unified waring states? Or, on the flip side, is Rome morally exceptional amoung aggressive conquerer states? And why?

          • @PugJesusOPM
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            123 hours ago

            I would argue that in the case of both America and Britain, the downsides of the racist regimes which they brought far outweighed the benefit of ending internecine warfare. If those regimes were, at that time, less horrifically racist, I might be inclined to regard it as neither positive nor negative; just another instance of conquest and warfare as is common before the 20th century. I don’t regard the Sioux as inherently immoral for making war on the Pawnee; nor would I regard the Prussians as inherently immoral for making war on the Austrians. It was a different time.

            If anything, I would regard European colonizers as morally exceptional amongst aggressive conqueror states - exceptional in a negative way, insofar as their conduct was significantly worse than the conduct of their contemporaries and even of themselves in non-colonial wars.

            The question of Roman conquest is far from the question of the benefits of Roman civilization - regardless of the opinion of the conquest, that Roman civilization came with significant benefits to those who were conquered is pretty undeniable. My opinion of Roman conquest is simple - that it was aggressive in a time of unchecked aggression; that it brought death in a time of death; that it was murder in a time of murder. If you’re asking if I think there are going to be many Roman conquerors at the pearly gates, my answer is no; if you’re asking if I think that Rome’s behavior in conquest was worse than their contemporaries, my answer is likewise no, and I don’t intend to condemn Rome for unexceptional behavior any more than I intend to condemn the Gauls or the Persians for unexceptional behavior.

            • @[email protected]
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              111 minutes ago

              This is a… Confusing comment. Im not sure how to respond. Just to clarify, you dont see Roman conquest as racially motivated? And, are you saying that the act of conquest via force is morally neutral so long as its not racially motivated? And furthermore, you don’t see acts of violence as morally negative so long as others are committing the same acts of violence?