• Mohamed
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    910 days ago

    There is a fallacy here. You are not making a specific person’s labour a right, but making a type of labour a right. That labour can be provided by many people, each of whom could theoretically have the right to refuse. That labour being a right means that there is some mechanism that ensures a person gets it. E.g., right to an attorney.

    Also, many many existing rights require other people’s labours. The right to a fair trial in the US would require a judge, a lawyer, and 12 members of a jury.

    • metaStatic
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      110 days ago

      so what happens when everyone has the right to refuse you and does?

      what does the right to anything mean if it can be denied?