• mumblerfish
      3·
      1 month ago

      one can further prove that the sphere S**n−1 can be partitioned into as many pieces as there are real numbers (that is, {isplaystyle 2^{leph {0}}}pieces)

      Would the answer to OP be some argument along the lines of defining the surface area of the ball as the sum of the partitioned balls surface areas then?

      • ch00f
        1·
        1 month ago

        IDK what OP is even going on about. This just seemed relevant.