• nosuchanon
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    4 days ago

    The 1% accounts for 60% of spending. But they are all over leveraged or waiting for the inevitable crash so they can buy everything cheap and increase their hoard.

    • T00l_shed
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      3 days ago

      Compared to the ruling class, the 1%s are practically destitute

      • Enkrod@feddit.org
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        3 days ago

        I’d love to see a source for that claim, that’s some very intetesting piece of information (if true)

          • Enkrod@feddit.org
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            3 days ago

            Absolutely, but how many ultra wealthy are politicians or top bureaucrats? I’d think they would not stoop so low as to actually BE politicians instead of just… buying some.

            • T00l_shed
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              3 days ago

              Yes, exactly the ruling class. They buy people who enact laws that benefit them

          • Enkrod@feddit.org
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            3 days ago

            That’s true, I’m more unsure about if the ruling class are bilionaires. I mean okay… it’s an oligarchy where billionairs simply buy politicians or both parties at once… but “the ruling class” would usually mean politicians and top bureaucrats, wouldn’t it?

            • T00l_shed
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              3 days ago

              It would mean it, if the politicians are the ones ruling, but since the politicians aren’t the ones ruling they would not be the ruling class is what I meant

              • Enkrod@feddit.org
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                2 days ago

                Ah, thanks, with that definition the factoid becomes way less interesting (as in not new to me)

                I think I might go with your definition from now on, seems closer to official definitions than what I thought it would be.

                Interesting that it translates to “political class” in german where the definition is very different, because “political class” there is basically defined as “career politicians” and excludes the capitalists ruling through financial instead of representative power. I think that’s where my misconception stems from.