• @[email protected]
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    1 year ago

    Never in history has violence been initiated by the oppressed.

    That may be the most historically inaccurate statement I’ve ever heard.

    Like what was the French and Indian war then? This statement could excuse the initiation of violence of any group in history, including the Nazis.

    • @[email protected]
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      11 year ago

      The Indians didn’t initiate that war. The French and British did by their colonizing presence.

        • @[email protected]
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          11 year ago

          To be clear though, there is no war without the British and the French meddling with Indian affairs.

          • @[email protected]
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            -11 year ago

            What? The whole reason the nations split they way they did is because they had a long history of war with one another. That’s a pretty ignorant assertion.

            • @[email protected]
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              11 year ago

              There can be no split without colonization. It’s amazing that you work so hard to be so ignorant.

                • @[email protected]
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                  1 year ago

                  There can be no SPLIT without colonization.

                  We’re talking about a specific scenario, but if you want to move the goalposts, let’s do that.

                  In each and every conflict, there is one party pushing their values or priorities at the cost of others, even in tribal conflicts. The aggressor is the colonizer (oppressor) and the other person is the aggrieved party (oppressed). In each of those conflicts, the oppressor is responsible for every atrocity that is committed because in their absence, there is NO CONFLICT.

                  • @[email protected]
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                    -11 year ago

                    That’s such a simplification of human interaction that I’m not sure there’s a single conflict I’m human history that fully fits that definition.