Not if you consider some of the shit the Commerce Clause has been used to justify. Consider Wickard v. Filburn (1942) in which a farmer who grew too much wheat was penalized, insisted it was for his personal use, and still got smacked down.
That case was made possible by FDR’s New Deal creating limits on wheat production. While I think it could have been argued many different ways, they did present a fairly logical argument using the commerce clause against the ND law.
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Not if you consider some of the shit the Commerce Clause has been used to justify. Consider Wickard v. Filburn (1942) in which a farmer who grew too much wheat was penalized, insisted it was for his personal use, and still got smacked down.
That case was made possible by FDR’s New Deal creating limits on wheat production. While I think it could have been argued many different ways, they did present a fairly logical argument using the commerce clause against the ND law.
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