Sorry but I subscribe to the idea that the two books were of the same authors and were divided up later, like Samuel.
I don’t need a translation to read it in the original. I made the effort to learn the biblical languages and yes I can tell you 100% with zero doubt that the words used refer to an adult male and another adult male. The whole plural tense thing means nothing. Old Hebrew had a word for boy and the authors choose not to use. There is a reason why no one fluent in Hebrew makes that argument and instead tries to use the context argument, like Dan did. There is no context that makes it not horrific. The text requires you to murder men who had consensual gay sex. The very word used in that passage is used only to describe ADULTS with a cock in every other single instance in the OT. From Adam onward.
I think the popular core list of 7 letters are authentic but that doesn’t mean the 6 forgeries have nothing Paul said.
Do you have any academic sources that posit Leviticus and Deuteronomy were written by the same authors? That’s a unique claim, they have clearly different priorities and values. The only folks I’ve heard claim they were authored by the same people are those that believe they were all written by Moses, which is certainly not the academic viewpoint.
I have not mentioned “boys” at all. I think you are projecting other arguments you’ve heard on to me, and not addressing my claim. I am claiming that in the context of the Bronze Age Middle East, the concept of consensual gay sex between adult men was not something that would be on the mind of the priestly folks tasked with compiling ritual law. The situation that they would have actually encountered or heard of would be assault.
The forged letters definitely have elements of what Paul said - if I wanted to forge a new Harry Potter book plagiarizing and rewriting some of the old books would be a good strategy. They also have changes that were clearly used to advocate theological positions that Paul would have opposed - most of the interesting stuff is related to soteriology though.
I am not studied enough in Hebrew to go into arguments concerning מִשְׁכְּבֵי אִשָּׁה, but considering it is a phrase that does not show up elsewhere in the Bible or contemporary Hebrew texts, I think reading it as unambiguously referring to consensual sex between men is the mind reading. Just like ἀρσενοκοίτης, we are trying to parse words with complicated meanings seated in a very specific cultural context.
אִשָּׁה means women, adult female. מִשְׁכְּבֵי means fucking. Both words are everywhere in that same chapter. Also if you want to be fully pedantic you don’t even need the accent marks for both. Why didn’t you include the entire sentence?
The only word you can argue with is זָכָר֙ which means male not just adult male. This is not a limiting term this is a broad term, this means eunchs and this means guys from other tribes, or spirits in the form of human males. There was a word for boy (יֶלֶד) which is not used, a word for slave (עֶבֶד) also not used, and a word for male angels also not used. The authors deliberately choose a word that would cover all human form males and combined with the rules against punish of a rape victim would result in only consensual gay male sex being banned.
Hebrew really isn’t that hard. 25 letters, about 100 roots, heavy dependence on prefixes and suffixes. It took a fair amount of self-study before I got to the point where I could get through the Book of Job word for word. If a person as bad as languages as me can do it I am sure you can.
The hard part is when you get to a word that is used like once and you see these really long debates online about what it means, but for these basic words like male, sex, boy, and slave they are all over.
Sorry but I subscribe to the idea that the two books were of the same authors and were divided up later, like Samuel.
I don’t need a translation to read it in the original. I made the effort to learn the biblical languages and yes I can tell you 100% with zero doubt that the words used refer to an adult male and another adult male. The whole plural tense thing means nothing. Old Hebrew had a word for boy and the authors choose not to use. There is a reason why no one fluent in Hebrew makes that argument and instead tries to use the context argument, like Dan did. There is no context that makes it not horrific. The text requires you to murder men who had consensual gay sex. The very word used in that passage is used only to describe ADULTS with a cock in every other single instance in the OT. From Adam onward.
I think the popular core list of 7 letters are authentic but that doesn’t mean the 6 forgeries have nothing Paul said.
Do you have any academic sources that posit Leviticus and Deuteronomy were written by the same authors? That’s a unique claim, they have clearly different priorities and values. The only folks I’ve heard claim they were authored by the same people are those that believe they were all written by Moses, which is certainly not the academic viewpoint.
I have not mentioned “boys” at all. I think you are projecting other arguments you’ve heard on to me, and not addressing my claim. I am claiming that in the context of the Bronze Age Middle East, the concept of consensual gay sex between adult men was not something that would be on the mind of the priestly folks tasked with compiling ritual law. The situation that they would have actually encountered or heard of would be assault.
The forged letters definitely have elements of what Paul said - if I wanted to forge a new Harry Potter book plagiarizing and rewriting some of the old books would be a good strategy. They also have changes that were clearly used to advocate theological positions that Paul would have opposed - most of the interesting stuff is related to soteriology though.
I don’t know you were a mind reader with access to a time machine. Now, what does the text say? In literal Hebrew.
I am not studied enough in Hebrew to go into arguments concerning מִשְׁכְּבֵי אִשָּׁה, but considering it is a phrase that does not show up elsewhere in the Bible or contemporary Hebrew texts, I think reading it as unambiguously referring to consensual sex between men is the mind reading. Just like ἀρσενοκοίτης, we are trying to parse words with complicated meanings seated in a very specific cultural context.
אִשָּׁה means women, adult female. מִשְׁכְּבֵי means fucking. Both words are everywhere in that same chapter. Also if you want to be fully pedantic you don’t even need the accent marks for both. Why didn’t you include the entire sentence?
Here https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/9921/jewish/Chapter-20.htm
The only word you can argue with is זָכָר֙ which means male not just adult male. This is not a limiting term this is a broad term, this means eunchs and this means guys from other tribes, or spirits in the form of human males. There was a word for boy (יֶלֶד) which is not used, a word for slave (עֶבֶד) also not used, and a word for male angels also not used. The authors deliberately choose a word that would cover all human form males and combined with the rules against punish of a rape victim would result in only consensual gay male sex being banned.
Hebrew really isn’t that hard. 25 letters, about 100 roots, heavy dependence on prefixes and suffixes. It took a fair amount of self-study before I got to the point where I could get through the Book of Job word for word. If a person as bad as languages as me can do it I am sure you can.
The hard part is when you get to a word that is used like once and you see these really long debates online about what it means, but for these basic words like male, sex, boy, and slave they are all over.