@[email protected] to People [email protected] • 11 months agoCrunchyrolllemy.lolimagemessage-square538fedilinkarrow-up11.41Karrow-down127file-text
arrow-up11.38Karrow-down1imageCrunchyrolllemy.lol@[email protected] to People [email protected] • 11 months agomessage-square538fedilinkfile-text
minus-square@[email protected]linkfedilink2•11 months ago An creator doesn’t possess the less by their work being copied. Yes, they do. Otherwise, you’d have to pay for it. Without paying for it, you would’t be able to consume it. This is false. “Pay for it” or “Pirate it” are not the only 2 options available.
minus-squareZoolanderlinkEnglish-1•11 months ago This is false. “Pay for it” or “Pirate it” are not the only 2 options available. What are the other options then?
minus-square@[email protected]linkfedilink2•11 months agoNot to consume it at all, obviously. Your measurement for converting potential revenue into loss hinges on those being the only 2 options.
minus-squareZoolanderlinkEnglish-1•11 months agoI have pointed that out as a possibility. Not consuming it at all, though, is not theft precisely because the person isn’t consuming it.
minus-square@[email protected]linkfedilink1•11 months agoIn which case piracy only accounts for lost revenue if and only if the pirate would have 100%, guaranteed, purchased the content if a pirates copy was not available. So your calculation does not work.
minus-squareZoolanderlinkEnglish-1•11 months ago if a pirates copy was not available. This is exactly why my calculation does work. If a pirated copy was not available, they wouldn’t be able to consume the media without paying for it.
minus-square@[email protected]linkfedilink2•11 months agoBut they also wouldn’t have to pay for it. Which is the only way your calculation would work.
This is false. “Pay for it” or “Pirate it” are not the only 2 options available.
What are the other options then?
Not to consume it at all, obviously.
Your measurement for converting potential revenue into loss hinges on those being the only 2 options.
I have pointed that out as a possibility. Not consuming it at all, though, is not theft precisely because the person isn’t consuming it.
In which case piracy only accounts for lost revenue if and only if the pirate would have 100%, guaranteed, purchased the content if a pirates copy was not available. So your calculation does not work.
This is exactly why my calculation does work. If a pirated copy was not available, they wouldn’t be able to consume the media without paying for it.
But they also wouldn’t have to pay for it. Which is the only way your calculation would work.