• @credo
        cake
        link
        51 year ago

        How so?

        “I can please none of the people all of the time,” equates to, “I can always please no one,” or… “I can never please anyone.”

        This is not the same as, “I can please all of the people none of the time,” which is, “I can never please everyone.”

        • @ripcord
          link
          31 year ago

          This seems very important to argue with a stranger about

          • @credo
            cake
            link
            31 year ago

            It’s the principal of the matter. (See subject headline)

        • @candybrie
          link
          21 year ago

          “I can please none of the people all of the time,” reads to me as there is no one you can please every time; i.e. you will disappoint everyone at some point. Which I feel is as true as not being able to please everyone.

          • @credo
            cake
            link
            11 year ago

            I hear you. Look into the difference between contraposistive and converse.

      • @[email protected]
        link
        fedilink
        English
        31 year ago

        “all of the people none of the time” means you will never please 100% of everyone. As in, maybe some people, but not everyone.
        “none of the people all of the time” means you will always please 0% of people.

        They’re very different statements.