Thats because the tense has to agree with the subject, subject being Israel in present times, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the ‘no one’ means ‘no on in present times’. No where in grammer does verb tense indicate anything other than the subjects time.
This is wrong on so many levels that I hope you are joking.
Verbs agree in person and number with the subject. “no one” is 3. person singular. Subjects don’t have time. Only verbs have tense.
If subjects had tense and “no one” was present, then the sentence would still be present. In that case, you would need to use the past form of “no one” to indicate tense.
What is the past form of ‘no one’ oh right, its still ‘no one’ so OPs intent to exclude the past isn’t clear. ‘is killing’ is the conjugation to use if you want to exclude the past, literally what it’s there for.
You’re the one who brought up the what if subjects have tense statement, not me. You’ve convinced me you just want to argue semantically. It’s still not clear that OP wants to exclude the past otherwise they would have used ‘is killing’ instead of ‘kills’
Its funny you wont respond to my argument where I say if OP wanted to exclude the past without saying so they should have used ‘is killing’ instead of ‘kills’ because ‘is killing’ necessary excluds the past, but ‘kills’ does not. Third time the cham though so I made the whole comment about it this time.
Thats [sic] presently because the tense presently has to agree with the subject, subject presently being Israel in present times, it doesn’t necessarily presently mean that the ‘no one’ presently means ‘no on in present times’. No where in grammer [sic] does verb tense presently indicate anything other than the subjects [sic] time.
Clarified so no one would presently confuse your statement to refer presently to Old English.
Okay then preface it next time, because other wise ‘no one’ just means ‘no one’
Kills = present tense
Killed = past tense
Thats because the tense has to agree with the subject, subject being Israel in present times, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the ‘no one’ means ‘no on in present times’. No where in grammer does verb tense indicate anything other than the subjects time.
This is wrong on so many levels that I hope you are joking.
Verbs agree in person and number with the subject. “no one” is 3. person singular. Subjects don’t have time. Only verbs have tense.
If subjects had tense and “no one” was present, then the sentence would still be present. In that case, you would need to use the past form of “no one” to indicate tense.
Rereading your comment: Israel isn’t the subject.
What is the past form of ‘no one’ oh right, its still ‘no one’ so OPs intent to exclude the past isn’t clear. ‘is killing’ is the conjugation to use if you want to exclude the past, literally what it’s there for.
You convinced me that you’re just stupid. Subjects don’t have tense, it’s the verb that carries that information
You’re the one who brought up the what if subjects have tense statement, not me. You’ve convinced me you just want to argue semantically. It’s still not clear that OP wants to exclude the past otherwise they would have used ‘is killing’ instead of ‘kills’
You said:
I said that (1.) this is wrong and (2.) even if it was right, your statement was still wrong.
Its funny you wont respond to my argument where I say if OP wanted to exclude the past without saying so they should have used ‘is killing’ instead of ‘kills’ because ‘is killing’ necessary excluds the past, but ‘kills’ does not. Third time the cham though so I made the whole comment about it this time.
Clarified so no one would presently confuse your statement to refer presently to Old English.