• @TheGrandNagus
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    6 months ago

    It proves nothing other than it’s their sporting organisation where they call the shots, and they called a shot.

    Is it anti-competitive for a private sporting organisation to not allow people to enter whenever they want? I don’t think so.

    Again, since you keep dodging it, should the UK or elsewhere be able to force the NFL to grant entry to UK teams on the grounds of it being anti-competitive as it stands?

    • @RapidcreekOP
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      16 months ago

      It’s a business listed on the NYSE. As such, it must follow the laws of the US.

      • @TheGrandNagus
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        6 months ago

        No. You are misunderstanding how this works.

        If Andretti wants to take FOM to court to join F1 then the Concorde Agreement comes into it, which is set out in English law. FOM is headquartered in the UK, and Formula 1 disputes are governed by agreements that designate English courts as the venue (although some that impact the FIA side of things are in French law). Since Formula 1’s operations are rooted in UK law, any legal challenge by Andretti against FOM would have to follow the rules set out in these agreements, which require legal proceedings to happen in the UK. No ifs, no buts.

        Even though FOM is owned by an American company, the legal framework around Formula 1means that any disputes have to be dealt with in UK courts.

        Think of it this way. If Cadburys refused to grant a license to a company in Australia to sell their chocolate there, they’d go to court in the UK, because Cadburys is a UK company, despite being owned by a US firm. They’d be taking Cadburys to court, not Mondelez. Just as Andretti would take FOM to court, not Liberty.

        I don’t have any problem with Andretti taking them to court…they just need to do it in the right place where they can actually do something, all the US can do is review it, say they agree but cant enforce a thing as FOM is not a US company.

        • @RapidcreekOP
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          16 months ago

          You need to read the article. Congress is asking if FOM is being anticompetitive by not allowing GM to compete. It has very little to do with Andretti.

          • @TheGrandNagus
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            6 months ago

            I’ve read the article. It’s a few congress people sabre-rattling about a matter they don’t understand.

            Andretti lobbied a few congress people, it’s semantics. It doesn’t change anything about my comment or the situation. FOM is not under US jurisdiction and the US can’t tell them what to do or find them guilty of anything.

            This can only be challenged in UK courts.

            Do you think that the NFL can be challenged in UK courts for not allowing British teams in the league? Could you explain your reasoning behind that logic?

            • @RapidcreekOP
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              16 months ago

              Again.

              The lead congressman is from Michigan, home of GM.

              FOM is a US company and very much under US law. Even if it wasn’t it could still be charged with US antitrust laws.

              The same thing happened to FIFA

              • @TheGrandNagus
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                6 months ago

                No. FOM is a British company and is under British law. The Concorde Agreement is under British law. You are wrong. Please do your research.

                Stop dodging the damn question. How many times do you need to be asked? Answer it.

                • @RapidcreekOP
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                  06 months ago

                  No, FWONK is a US company, but nevermind the facts. The Concord Agreement is a registered corporate document of a US company that used to be known as Liberty Media, and is now Formula One. As such, it is under the purview of of the SEC, DOJ among others. This is not a contract dispute. It is a potential antitrust suit.

                  • @TheGrandNagus
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                    6 months ago

                    No. FOM is a British company, based in the UK, bound by UK law. It is headquartered in London. The Concorde Agreement is also under the purview of British law. You keep repeating that 2+2=5, but that does not make it so.

                    Stop ignoring my question. Answer it.