• @ThatGuy46475
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    23 hours ago

    It’s not circular reasoning, it’s a step of mathematical induction. First you show that something is true for a set of 1, then you show that if it’s true for a set of n it is also true for a set of n+1.

    • sp3ctr4l
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      13 hours ago

      As with Kogasa, you’re right that this is not circular reasoning, it is induction.

      I judged it a bit too quickly.

      However, it isn’t a valid proof of induction.

      I tried to work through exactly where and how it fails in another comment.

      So… it is still fallacious reasoning of some kind, but yes, not the circular reasoning fallacy.