• @[email protected]
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    1 year ago

    and the definition of “is.”

    Now the Supreme Court is debating over whether “and” means “and” or “or”

    Note: the implications of the actual piece of legislature this pertains to is very important, but the concept of arguing over the definition of “and” is still absurd

    • Omnifarious
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      41 year ago

      I dont think my desk can take much more punishment from me, slamming my head into it.

      • @OrteilGenou
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        1 year ago

        Into it or onto it? Better convene the assembly so we can try to achieve consensus

    • @fanta69
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      21 year ago

      Now the Supreme Court is debating over whether “and” means “and” or “or"

      Sorry, European here - what the actual fuck?

      • @[email protected]
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        1 year ago

        Basically there’s this piece of legislature regarding nonviolent drug offenders that will spare them from longer sentences so long as they do not have on their record conditions: A B, and C

        The key issue being that “and” is written right at the end of condition B

        The debate is basically over whether that means they cannot have A, B, AND C on their record collectively, or if it was intended to mean they cannot have A, cannot have B, AND cannot have C - as in they cannot have any one of them

        Or perhaps alternatively, they cannot have either A, or B AND C together

        Basically the wording is shit - likely intentionally, but it’s also probable that whoever wrote this is just dumb… Par for the course either way, really

        Hope that wasn’t too complicated… I’ve made like 6 edits to this comment trying to clear it up as best I can lmao

        • @fanta69
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          21 year ago

          That was well explained and blows my mind a court is wasting any time on that.

          Here we have the convention when drafting legislation that the conjunction ‘and’ at the end of a list it means all things in the list- so A, B, and C. Whereas if ‘or’ appears, it means a choice from the list.

          I get that maybe once upon a time there needed to be clarification in the courts, but that cannot me the first time such a drafting approach has been taken in legislation in the USA and so an interpretation must have been established already?

          I can see why contextually there could be room for either interpretation, but it’s astonishing a consistent interpretation hasn’t been established.

          • @[email protected]
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            01 year ago

            Like I said, it was likely made intentionally vague - either with malicious intent or to give wiggle room for this exact sort of legal debacle while still getting the legislation passed

            Or, again, whoever wrote this is stupid

            It’s really a coin toss for either option