No. Bombing campaigns are famously expensive and ineffective with regards to actually killing people. I’m serious. There’s a reason why Hitler used filtration camps and mustard gas. There’s a reason why the Chinese use forced sterilization programs. These programs are cheaper, more efficient, and more effective at genocide.

The difference is, Israel relies on receiving billions of dollars from foreign nations to support itself and this war. If they were to do such things, they would likely lose a lot of that support. So they need to have plausible deniability.

And you’re feeding into that.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genocide_Convention#Definition_of_genocide

“Article 2 of the Convention defines genocide as any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial or religious group, as such:”

• Killing members of the group; - They’ve done plenty of this
• Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; - They’ve done plenty of this
• Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; - See above statements on forcing civilians from their homes, destruction of residences, prevention of food and water
• Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; - See my above statements explaining the similarity
• Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group. - Already explained to you

A genocide is a genocide even if the destruction is only partial. Only one of these is needed to define a genocide under the genocide convention, and Israel is very nearly doing all five.

Oh, Israel is taking Palestinian children and forcing them to become adopted under Israeli parents, who then force them to learn Hebrew and turn away from Islam?

You are adding on extra qualifications when I already proved similarity. You are moving the goal posts.

Have a good day.