Jesus christ dude. If you want to discuss you need to actually engage with the points made.
The definition says it can be done to “any other racial group” - why? How can this possibly be the wording if it had to be done to the majority group?
“As practiced in South Africa.”
Again, look at the actual wording of the whole sentence:
For the purpose of the present Convention, the term “the crime of apartheid”, which shall include similar policies and practices of racial segregation and discrimination as practised in southern Africa
It doesn’t have to be exactly the same. That’s why it says similar policies and not “identical to” or “the policies of…”
Bud…yes, similar policies against any other racial group as practiced in South Africa.
When a court of law with competent jurisdiction somewhere find someone outside of South Africa guilty of apartheid, then you have a leg to stand. Until then, there’s a reason nobody has been charged outside of South Africa, and that’s because the practices in South Africa were if a fundamentally different character than those in Israel, chiefly, based on immigration status, not race, and secondly, against non citizens, not citizens.
I thought there was hope for you. But today I’m convinced that either (1) you’re a hopeless pro-zioniat bootlicker or (2) you have some kind of psychological issue that makes you incapable of changing your mind even when provided with overwhelming evidence.
And today is the day I stop giving a fuck. I’m blocking you soon, goodbye forever. May we never meet. I don’t need more assholes to dehumanize me as a Palestinian and deny me the right to self determination and self defense in favor of a bunch of ruthless butchers.
Ps: frankly you seem quite racist.
The slimy questionable lawer-type racist.
Bud…yes, similar policies against any other racial group as practiced in South Africa.
So not necessarily a minority vs a majority. It literally doesn’t matter and appears nowhere in the definition.
When a court of law with competent jurisdiction somewhere find someone outside of South Africa guilty of apartheid, then you have a leg to stand
The implicit idea that we can’t just read the definition and apply it, so we must wait for a court to read it for us is laughable to me. Crimes exist regardless of whether they are convicted in practice.
“As practiced in South Africa.”
What was practiced in South Africa was minority political rule over the racial majority.
Jesus christ dude. If you want to discuss you need to actually engage with the points made.
The definition says it can be done to “any other racial group” - why? How can this possibly be the wording if it had to be done to the majority group?
Again, look at the actual wording of the whole sentence:
It doesn’t have to be exactly the same. That’s why it says similar policies and not “identical to” or “the policies of…”
Bud…yes, similar policies against any other racial group as practiced in South Africa.
When a court of law with competent jurisdiction somewhere find someone outside of South Africa guilty of apartheid, then you have a leg to stand. Until then, there’s a reason nobody has been charged outside of South Africa, and that’s because the practices in South Africa were if a fundamentally different character than those in Israel, chiefly, based on immigration status, not race, and secondly, against non citizens, not citizens.
I thought there was hope for you. But today I’m convinced that either (1) you’re a hopeless pro-zioniat bootlicker or (2) you have some kind of psychological issue that makes you incapable of changing your mind even when provided with overwhelming evidence.
And today is the day I stop giving a fuck. I’m blocking you soon, goodbye forever. May we never meet. I don’t need more assholes to dehumanize me as a Palestinian and deny me the right to self determination and self defense in favor of a bunch of ruthless butchers.
Ps: frankly you seem quite racist. The slimy questionable lawer-type racist.
So not necessarily a minority vs a majority. It literally doesn’t matter and appears nowhere in the definition.
The implicit idea that we can’t just read the definition and apply it, so we must wait for a court to read it for us is laughable to me. Crimes exist regardless of whether they are convicted in practice.
Where is this quote from? Link please.