• @RapidcreekOP
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    -26 months ago

    There’s usually a reason. What is the reason? It is the answer to the letters question.

    • @TheGrandNagus
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      6 months ago

      I don’t know what you’re saying, can you speak plainly? This reads like a chatGPT response or a bad attempt at a riddle.

      Should countries be able to compel the NFL to allow entry to teams they like, on the basis that not allowing them in is anti-competitive?

      If no, then what’s with the double standard? Is it American exceptionalism? Something else?

      • @RapidcreekOP
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        46 months ago

        If the NFL received a request to franchise a foreign team and rejected it, they would state why, per their own rules, they rejected it. That is what the letter demands.

        Understand?

        So, to go back in time…

        The FIA spent months of due diligence on the Andretti Global business plan and resources. They pronounced them good to go.

        The teams and Liberty made Andretti jump through hoops, and rejected them giving no good reason.

        • @TheGrandNagus
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          6 months ago

          There’s already an explanation: because they wanted to and aren’t obliged to let anybody into their club that wants to join.

          And nah, the NFL doing that wouldn’t matter. Not letting them in would still be anti-competitive and not following UK law.

          • @RapidcreekOP
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            16 months ago

            So, that proves they are anti competitive and they’ll be referred to the the DOJ just like FIFA. Congrats

            • @TheGrandNagus
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              6 months ago

              It proves nothing other than it’s their sporting organisation where they call the shots, and they called a shot.

              Is it anti-competitive for a private sporting organisation to not allow people to enter whenever they want? I don’t think so.

              Again, since you keep dodging it, should the UK or elsewhere be able to force the NFL to grant entry to UK teams on the grounds of it being anti-competitive as it stands?

              • @RapidcreekOP
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                16 months ago

                It’s a business listed on the NYSE. As such, it must follow the laws of the US.

                • @TheGrandNagus
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                  6 months ago

                  No. You are misunderstanding how this works.

                  If Andretti wants to take FOM to court to join F1 then the Concorde Agreement comes into it, which is set out in English law. FOM is headquartered in the UK, and Formula 1 disputes are governed by agreements that designate English courts as the venue (although some that impact the FIA side of things are in French law). Since Formula 1’s operations are rooted in UK law, any legal challenge by Andretti against FOM would have to follow the rules set out in these agreements, which require legal proceedings to happen in the UK. No ifs, no buts.

                  Even though FOM is owned by an American company, the legal framework around Formula 1means that any disputes have to be dealt with in UK courts.

                  Think of it this way. If Cadburys refused to grant a license to a company in Australia to sell their chocolate there, they’d go to court in the UK, because Cadburys is a UK company, despite being owned by a US firm. They’d be taking Cadburys to court, not Mondelez. Just as Andretti would take FOM to court, not Liberty.

                  I don’t have any problem with Andretti taking them to court…they just need to do it in the right place where they can actually do something, all the US can do is review it, say they agree but cant enforce a thing as FOM is not a US company.

                  • @RapidcreekOP
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                    16 months ago

                    You need to read the article. Congress is asking if FOM is being anticompetitive by not allowing GM to compete. It has very little to do with Andretti.

      • @mhague
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        06 months ago

        You’ve never used chatgpt