• @[email protected]
        link
        fedilink
        2
        edit-2
        5 months ago

        According to someone else in here, it was 19th, and that sounds right to me. I’m guessing early 19th.

        It’s just a neat, tidy legal fiction for some purposes.

        • _haha_oh_wow_
          link
          fedilink
          English
          25 months ago

          Negative. Corporate personhood predates Citizens United v. FCC (which is what I assume you’re referring to). IMO: The ruling itself still counts as an answer to the original question though!

    • ComradeSharkfucker
      link
      fedilink
      English
      105 months ago

      Is that really a 21st century idea? I would have thought that was a reaganomics reform tbh

      • @[email protected]
        link
        fedilink
        English
        25 months ago

        It’s a 19th century idea that appeared in the published decision of the Supreme Court in Santa Clara County v. Southern Pacific Railroad Co.

        Only—get this—it wasn’t even what the Court decided. Instead, it was the guy in charge of recording the decision for publication who declared “corporate personhood” in the headnote (summary) of the case. And would it surprise you to learn that the guy was the former president of a railroad company? We just sort of went along with this not-precedent until the Citizens United case.

          • @[email protected]
            link
            fedilink
            English
            15 months ago

            Not quite. The Santa Clara decision gave corporations equal protection under the 14th Amendment, is law in the same sense that Citizens United is, and has been applied many, many times. The 2010 decision held that 1st Amendment protections apply to corporations.