• @SpaceNoodle
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    -91 year ago

    It’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.

    • @[email protected]
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      31 year ago

      Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense

      • @SpaceNoodle
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        -41 year ago

        No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.

            • @schmidtster
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              1 year ago

              For someone who only posts insulting others and correcting (incorrectly a bunch too….) their grammar, you sure lack any amount of reading comprehension.

              Its always the loudest people who are the most guilty, I appreciate the lengths you go to prove this is still true.

              • StrikerM
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                11 year ago

                @[email protected] I see a lot of toxic behaviour from you here and I will be keeping a closer eye on you in the future.

                As you @[email protected] try not to bring disputes started in other comment chains into this one.

                • @schmidtster
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                  1 year ago

                  I’ve tried just reporting them before. Doesn’t seem to do anything, so sorry for having to point it out. See this person all over Lemmy in lots of communities.

                  And just had an interaction yesterday, so had to see what was new with them. Again, my apologies for bringing this to your attention, wasn’t bringing an argument in.

    • ℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃
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      11 year ago

      In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.

      • @SpaceNoodle
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        -21 year ago

        He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.

        • @[email protected]
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          1 year ago

          No native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.

          • @SpaceNoodle
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            1 year ago

            No native English speaker would say it like you said.