At what point does a country assisting Ukraine become “at war” with Russia?
Obviously a country is free to send money to Ukraine. Countries send foreign aid all the time, often in the form of money.
And a country can sell weapons to other countries. So if you combine that with giving money, now you’re giving weapons. So that’s fine.
If you let your own citizens (some of whom are veterans) go to Ukraine to enlist, that’s their own business. Ukraine can accept or deny them, but there’s no ability for the home country to prevent them from joining.
But if the country sends active troops to Ukraine, does that count as an implicit declaration of war against Russia?
Not that France is at any risk. Russia would be unlikely to strike within France, and if they did, France would go to full war with Russia, and Russia would lose.
Without an official “Declaration of War” by either side, active troops can and have in the past been deployed to warring counties.
Perfect example: The Korean War.
China sent tens of thousands of “volunteers” from their Army to fight the Americans in the Korean war. They weren’t just volunteering though, they were fighting without an official Declaration of War. America, still cocky from WW2 and heavily under the influence of McCarthyism didn’t care either way.
Americans suffer a form of collective amnesia about the Korean conflict for many reasons, but the Chinese PRC has had a disdain for US for it ever since.
So yes, assuming no Country officially Declares war as a result of the action, any Country can send in troops into the fight. It’s a fools game as to what will be the result though.
During spanish Civil War both Germany and Russia were actively contributing to different sides and they were not openly at war… they didn’t send more than a few thousand troops though
At what point does a country assisting Ukraine become “at war” with Russia?
Obviously a country is free to send money to Ukraine. Countries send foreign aid all the time, often in the form of money.
And a country can sell weapons to other countries. So if you combine that with giving money, now you’re giving weapons. So that’s fine.
If you let your own citizens (some of whom are veterans) go to Ukraine to enlist, that’s their own business. Ukraine can accept or deny them, but there’s no ability for the home country to prevent them from joining.
But if the country sends active troops to Ukraine, does that count as an implicit declaration of war against Russia?
Not that France is at any risk. Russia would be unlikely to strike within France, and if they did, France would go to full war with Russia, and Russia would lose.
Without an official “Declaration of War” by either side, active troops can and have in the past been deployed to warring counties.
Perfect example: The Korean War.
China sent tens of thousands of “volunteers” from their Army to fight the Americans in the Korean war. They weren’t just volunteering though, they were fighting without an official Declaration of War. America, still cocky from WW2 and heavily under the influence of McCarthyism didn’t care either way.
Americans suffer a form of collective amnesia about the Korean conflict for many reasons, but the Chinese PRC has had a disdain for US for it ever since.
So yes, assuming no Country officially Declares war as a result of the action, any Country can send in troops into the fight. It’s a fools game as to what will be the result though.
During spanish Civil War both Germany and Russia were actively contributing to different sides and they were not openly at war… they didn’t send more than a few thousand troops though
Sending troups could be to protect some places like the UN can do.